CDS Exam: Eligibility, Salaries, Syllabus, Cut-Off, Latest News- Eduexa 25 Jul 2024, 8:23 am

The Combined Defence Services Examination, often known as the CDS Exam, is administered by the Union Public Service Commission. This examination is utilised to recruit Commissioned Officers for the Indian Military Academy, Officers Training Academy, Indian Naval Academy, and Indian Air Force Academy. Typically, notification of the examination is disseminated between the months of December and May, but the examinations themselves are conducted during the months of April and September, respectively. Candidates for the exam must be single and have completed their formal schooling. Each year, two examinations are administered. Those who are considered qualified after an interview process regulated by the Services Selection Board are admitted to the relevant academies (SSB).

General overview of the CDS examination

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) administers the “Combined Defence Services” Examination (CDS Examination) twice a year to recruit candidates for the Indian Military Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, Indian Naval Academy, and Indian Air Force Academy. These institutions educate officers for the Indian military. 

The CDS test will be administered by the UPSC twice per year, once in February and once in September. Candidates who intend to serve their country by entering the armed forces can now begin the application procedure for the CDS examination. Before submitting an online application for the CDS examination, candidates must satisfy all of the qualifying requirements provided by the Commission. 

The candidates will be selected based on their performance on a written examination, which will be followed by an interview in which their intelligence and character will be assessed. The remaining candidates will be placed to the various academies according to their choices and overall merit.

The two stages of the CDS selection procedure are the written exam and the SSB interview. Before making the final selection, the performance of the applicants in both phases is considered. After completing training at the IMA, INA, AFA, and OTA, respectively, candidates are selected for the position of lieutenant. During their course, each candidate will receive an allowance of 56,100 INR.

What are the CDS 1 and CDS 2 Examinations?

Students who will begin their studies at the Indian Military Academy in Dehradun, the Air Force Academy in Hyderabad, and the Indian Naval Academy in Ezhimala take the CDS 1 examination in January. Students who will begin their studies at the Officers Training Academy in Chennai in April and October, respectively, will also take exams in July and October of 2025.

CDS Age Limit Criteria

In order to take the UPSC CDS examination, it is of the utmost importance that candidates satisfy the qualifying requirements. Before completing the application form, applicants must ensure that they meet all of the prerequisites. The table below details the age requirements for the CDS examination in 2025. Verify that you have attained the minimum age requirement for the CDS, which is the same for both male and female applicants, prior to beginning preparations.

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The CDS Has an Age Limit for IMA and INA.

Male applicants are required for consideration for IMA and INA positions. The applicants must not be married and their birthdays must fall between July 1, 2004 and July 2, 1999. Additionally, they cannot be between these two dates.

IAFA’s CDS Age Limit Requirement

IAFA is now only accepting applications from male candidates.

• Candidates must be between 20 and 24 years old as of July 1, 2025, in order to be considered. (that is, the applicant’s date of birth could not have been earlier than July 2, 1999, or later than July 1, 2004)
• If an applicant currently holds a valid and current commercial pilot licence issued by DGCA (India), they are eligible for an age limit relaxation up to 26 years old. (This indicates that the candidate’s birthday could not have been earlier than July 2, 1997, or later than July 1, 2003.)
• Candidates under the minimum age requirement of 25 must establish that they have never been married.
• In addition, applicants will be prohibited from getting married throughout their training period.
• Candidates over the age of 25 and who are married are also able to apply; however, housing will not be provided for their wives throughout the training term, nor will they be authorised to reside with their families off-site.

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CDS Age Requirement in OTA

The CDS-established age limit parameters for OTA assignments are explained. If a woman meets the CDS eligibility requirements in 2025 and is interested in pursuing a career in this field, she may submit an application for one of the non-technical positions. Examine the illustrated CDS qualifying requirements for both women and men, and ensure you meet all of them prior to commencing your test preparations.

SSC Instruction for Adult Men

The applicants must not be married and their birthdays must fall between July 1, 2004 and July 2, 1999. Additionally, they cannot be between these two dates.

For Women Enrolling in the Non-Technical SSC Course

• The applicant’s date of birth must have occurred between the second of January 1998 and the first of January 2004.
• The applicant cannot be married, a widow who has not remarried, or a divorcee who has not remarried and is in possession of their divorce papers.

Nationality

• The candidate must be either a native of India or a citizen of Nepal or Bhutan in order to begin.
• The candidate may also be a Tibetan immigrant who entered India before January 1, 1962.
• In addition, they could be an Indian who has relocated back to India from another country.
• Lastly, they must be in possession of an India government-issued certificate. In contrast, Gorkha residents in Nepal are not needed to obtain this document.

Educational Qualifications 

The Union Public Service Commission has specified a minimum degree of education that a candidate must possess in order to be qualified for the NDA examination.

• A high school diploma or bachelor’s degree from a government-recognized university is the bare minimum requirement for taking the CDS exam.
• Graduates who have selected the Army, Navy, or Air Force as their first preference must present proof of graduation or temporary certificates to the SSB on the designated interview day.
• Candidates in their final year of college may also apply, assuming they have not fallen behind in the application procedure. In addition, prior to the start of the course, they are required to submit proof that they passed the degree exams.
• If the test were administered, candidates with professional and technical credentials recognised by the government as being equivalent to degrees in professional and technical subjects would also be eligible for admission.

If you are a General Category student then the cut off will be higher in Government exams.

Eligibility Standards for the CDS, Including Physical Requirements for Men and Women

In compliance with UPCS regulations, candidates must demonstrate that they are both physically and psychologically fit. A considerable number of otherwise qualified candidates are removed from consideration on the grounds of their health. Therefore, applicants are strongly urged to get a medical exam before to submitting their CDS Exam applications. 

Following is a list of the most commonly seen disqualifying factors.

Physical appearance criteria for both men and women:

• Wax (ears)
• Septum of the Nose With a Deviation
• Hydrocele/Varicocele/Phimosis
• Overweight/Underweight
• Piles
• Gynaecomastia

Permanent body tattoos are completely banned anywhere else on their bodies, excluding the inner face of the forearm (from the inside of the elbow to the wrist) and the reverse side of palm/back (dorsal) side of the hand. In accordance with the pre-existing customs and traditions of specific tribes, candidates with tattoos symbolising such tribes on their faces or bodies will be authorised under certain conditions.

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Height and Weight Standards According to the CDS

• 157.5 centimetres is the minimum acceptable height for a male applicant. The minimum height requirement for male candidates is 157 centimetres for the Navy and 162.5 centimetres for the Air Force, while the minimum height requirement for female candidates is 152 centimetres.
• The minimum permissible height will be reduced by 5 centimetres for Gorkha, Garhwali, and Kumaon individuals, as well as those from the hills in the north-eastern region of India. Candidates from the island of Lakshadweep are eligible for a two-centimeter reduction in the minimum acceptable height.
• The optimal body mass index number is less than 25.
• The waist-to-hip ratio should be less than 0.9 for men and less than 0.8 for women.
• Men should have a waist circumference of less than 90 cm, while women should have a waist circumference of less than 80 cm.
• It is essential that all biochemical metabolic parameters remain within normal limits.

Diverse Illustrations of Physical Standards

In addition to the height-to-weight ratio, candidates must meet a number of other physical standards in order to establish that they are physically fit:

Visual Standards

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) has prescribed for all academies the following visual requirements:

With respect to the IMA and OTA

• 6/60 uncorrected vision (the maximum allowed) in both eyes
• BCVA – Rt 6/6 & Lt 6/6
• Myopia is characterised by a sph less than -3.50 (with a maximum astigmatism of +/- 2.0 D Cyl).
• The term “hypermetropia” refers to a prescription larger than +3.50 diopters of spherical equivalent (with the maximum amount of astigmatism falling between +/- 2.0 diopters cylindrical).
• Surgical procedures comparable to Lasik or their counterparts are permitted.
• Colour perception: CP II

With respect to Joining the Navy

• Without glasses or corrective lenses: 6/12 and 6/12.
• 6 out of 6 with the aid of corrective lenses
• Myopia cannot exceed -1.5 diopters.
• +1.5D for hypermetropia’s upper limits
• Binocular Vision: III
• Perception of Color: Limits I

With respect to the Air Force

Applicants to the Air Force who wear eyeglasses regularly will be denied. 

Minimum distance vision requirements are 6/6 in one eye and 6/9 in the other, both correctable to 6/6.

CP-1 colour vision with hypermetropia:

• +2.0 d Sph – Hypermetropia
• Manifest Myopia: Nil
• Retinal myopia — 0.5 diopters in any meridian
• With a maximum value of +2.0 D-, astigmatism is +0.75 D Cyl.

Maddox Rod Test:

•  at 6 meters:

1. Exo-6 prism D
2. Eso-6 prism D
3. Hyper-1 prism D
4. Hypo-1prism D 

•  at 33 cms:

1. Exo-16 prism D 
2. Eso-6 prism D 
3. Hyper-1 prism D
4. Hypo-1 prism D

* Lasik/equivalent surgery

Candidates who have undergone any type of kerato-refractive surgery must present a certificate or operating records from the hospital detailing the date, type of surgery, and technique. For the candidates to be considered qualified, they must meet the following standards.

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• A patient must be at least 20 years old before undergoing surgery.
• Minimum 12 months post LASIK
• Greater than or equal to 450 microns for the thickness of the central cornea
• IOL Master reports an axial length of less than or equal to 26 millimetres.
• residual index of refraction less than or equal to +/- 1.0 D inclusive of cylinder (provided acceptable in the category applied for).
• A normal and healthy segment of the retina
• Other potential additions to the list of supplementary criteria include corneal topography and ectasia markers.

Air Force Hearing Standards and Regulations

The following disorders are associated with hearing standards and the ear:

• As part of the speech test, hearing loss in the free field is grounds for rejection. It is unacceptable to reduce the CV/FW by less than 600 cm in any manner.
• The audiometric test demands that there be no hearing loss greater than 20 dB in the frequency range of 250 to 8000 Hz. On the recommendation of an ENT doctor, a unilateral hearing loss of up to 30 DB may be authorised if the ENT evaluation is otherwise normal.
• Even if the mastoid is completely epithelialized and the patient has normal hearing following a radical or modified radical mastoidectomy, the patient will still be rejected. It is feasible to accept historical cases in which a cortical mastoidectomy was performed but the tympanic membrane was left intact, the patient had normal hearing, and no illness was present.
• Chronic otitis externa cases with exostoses or excessively narrow meat will not be accepted. When there is an excessive degree of tortuosity in the canal, the anterior view of the tympanic membrane may be obscured, which is grounds for rejection.

Twelve weeks following surgery, a type I tympanoplasty is deemed successful if the ear clearance test in the altitude chamber yields normal findings. 

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The following middle ear disorders will cause rejection:

• Holes in the attic, the middle, or the sides
• Significant retraction of a scar on the tympanic membrane.
• The tympanoplasty procedures kinds II and higher, but not type I.
• When calcareous plaques, also known as tympanosclerosis, occupy more than a third of the pars tensa, they are present.
• Infection of the ear canal.
• Granulation or polyp is seen in the external auditory canal.
• The operation referred to as a stapedectomy.
• Otosclerosis
• Meniere’s sickness
• Inadequate functioning of the vestibular system, including vestibular nystagmus.
• Due to an ear infection, Bell’s palsy is developed.

Spinal Conditions For Air Force

A sickness or injury of the spine or sacroiliac joints in the medical history of the candidate, with or without external indicators that have hindered the candidate from leading a physically active life, is grounds for denial of commissioning in the IAF. This ailment can manifest at any time during the candidate’s lifetime. A patient will be rejected if they have a history of spinal fracture or prolapsed intervertebral disc, or if they require surgical treatment for either of these conditions. 

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A candidate for the Air Force who is found to have one of the following conditions during the medical examination will be disqualified.

• Granulomatosis spinalis 
• Arthritis/Spondylosis
• Rheumatoid arthritis and other associated disorders
• Ankylosing spondylitis
• Degenerative joint diseases, such as osteoarthritis, spondylosis, and other associated disorders
• Rheumatism that is not associated with the joints (e.g. lesions of the rotator cuff, tennis elbow, recurrent lumbago, etc.)
• Diseases including systemic lupus erythematosus, dermatomyositis, polymyositis, and vasculitis.
• Spondylolisthesis is sometimes referred to as spondylolysis and spondylosis.
• Vertebral fracture caused by compression
• Scheuermann’s disease (Adolescent Kyphosis)
• Loss of cervical lordosis when accompanied by clinically limited movements of the cervical spine.
• Injuries to the cervical region that are unilateral or bilateral and clearly damage the nervous system or circulation.
• Conditioning and Strengthening

Physical Conditioning:

Candidates in the waiting period are highly urged to maintain their physical fitness by adhering to the programme outlined below.

• Running: 2 to 4 km in 15 minutes
• Push-ups and Sit-ups: At least 20 of each
• At least eight chin-ups
• Three to Four Meters of Climbing the Rope
• Skipping
• Disorders of the Teeth

Dental Conditions:

The following conditions relevant to dental standards and issues must be met by CDS candidates:

• Initial stages of pathological abnormalities of the jaw that are known to worsen or recur.
• Significant differences between the upper and lower jaws that limit appropriate mastication or speech will be grounds for rejection.
• The discomfort and clicking associated with a sick Temporomandibular Joint render it susceptible to rejection.
• A mouth opening of less than 30 millimetres at the borders of the incisors; dislocation of the TMJ when the mouth is opened too widely.
• All conditions that have the potential to cause cancer.
• Clinical diagnosis of submucous fibrosis, with or without mouth opening restriction.
• Inadequate oral health condition characterised by the presence of calculus, periodontal pockets, and/or gum bleeding.
• A candidate will be disqualified if they have more than two loose teeth.
• Patients who have received maxillofacial cosmetic surgery or post-traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma shall be classified UNFIT for at least 24 weeks following the procedure or injury, whichever occurs first.
• If your teeth are not properly aligned, you may have trouble chewing food, keeping good oral hygiene, obtaining adequate nutrition, and performing your work effectively.

Chest Conditions

• Even if they meet all other eligibility standards, candidates with any of the following medical conditions will be disqualified:
• Lesions of the lungs, heart, or chest wall musculoskeletal lesions
• Hernia, undescended testis, varicocele, organomegaly, single kidney, horseshoe kidney, and cysts in the kidney/liver, gall bladder stones, renal and ureteric stones, lesions/deformities of urogenital organs, piles, sinuses, and lymphadenitis/pathy.

Nervous System Conditions

• Unacceptable behaviours include trembling, trouble communicating verbally, and unsteadiness.
• Common skin disorders include vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, and various skin infections.
• It is prohibited to have growths or to perspire excessively.

Additional Essential Information

• The candidate shall be excluded from the Army and Navy if any of the following conditions are detected during the X-ray examination:
• Granulomatous spinal disorder Granulomatous spinal disorder
• Arthritis includes rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and associated diseases.
• According to Cobb’s method of measurement, scoliosis with a degree more than 100 degrees.
• Kyphosis and lordosis that are more severe than moderate cases.
• Spondylolisthesis/Spondylosis/Spondylolysis.
• The herniation of the nucleus pulposus.
• Fracture of the vertebrae induced by compression. [Medline+]
• Pathology of Sacralization
• Ribs in the cervical area displaying obvious signs of neurological or circulatory malfunction.
• There are multiple occurrences of Schmorl’s node on various levels.
• Atlanto-occipital and atlantoaxial abnormalities.
• Incomplete sacralization that is either unilateral or bilateral.
• Spina bifida is unique from both SV 1 and LV 5 conditions.

Registration for the CDS

Prior to enrolling for CDS, candidates interested in the role should evaluate whether or not they meet all of the Commission’s eligibility requirements. Candidates must register for the CDS examination by visiting the UPSC’s official website, located at http://upsconline.nic.in. Candidates are required to furnish information from one government-issued photo identity card, such as an Aadhaar Card, Voter Card, PAN Card, Passport, or Driving License. The information provided on the ID card is required to complete the CDS online application form. Candidates are reminded to always have a scanned copy of their photo identity ready to upload. Up until the final selection, the same photo identification card is required.

CDS (I) and CDS (II) Application Forms, as well as Procedure

The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will administer the Combined Defence Services (CDS) test in order to fill posts in the Indian military, the Indian Naval Academy, the Air Force Academy, and the Officer’s Training Academy. There will be two administrations of the examination per year. Candidates interested in applying can do so by visiting the UPSC’s official website.

After determining whether or not applicants have completed the standards for CDS 1 and CDS 2, the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) conducts an interview with candidates who have passed the written examination. After it has been decided that a candidate meets the requirements for an interview or personality test, only then will the eligibility requirements be verified using the original documents.

Candidates must submit their applications via the official UPSC website, which may be accessed at www.upsconline.nic.in. On the official website, candidates can find basic instructions for completing the online application form. The online application form consists of two parts: the first and second. Applicants are asked to ensure that the application form is filled out in accordance with the instructions published on the official website.

The fee for candidates is INR 200 [except for SC/ST candidates, who are exempt from payment]. The fee can be paid in one of the following ways: by making a cash deposit at any SBI branch; by using the net banking facility of the State Bank of India/State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore Applicants who select the “Pay by Cash” mode during Part-II registration are required to print the system-generated Pay in-slip and bring it One day before to the transaction date, the option to “Pay by Cash” will be deleted.

A applicant is required to have his or her photograph and signature scanned in the.jpg format prior to filling out the online application. Each file must not be larger than 40 KB and must not be smaller than 3 KB for the photograph and 1 KB for the signature. Before the candidate can continue filling out the online application, this must be completed. It is strongly advised that applicants avoid submitting multiple applications. In the event that a single applicant must submit numerous applications due to unforeseen circumstances, the applicant is responsible for ensuring that the applications with higher RIDs are exhaustive in every respect.

Candidates may make direct contact with the facilitation counter located near Gate ‘C’ of the UPSC campus in person or by calling the following numbers on weekdays between 10:00 AM and 5:00 PM: 011 – 23385271 / 011 – 23381125 / 011 – 23098543.

CDS Application Withdrawal Capabilities

The UPSC has implemented a withdrawal of application option for those who do not wish to take the examination. The Commission will accept application withdrawals until 6 p.m. To withdraw an application, one must provide their login credentials. The request to generate an OTP for application withdrawal will only be accepted until 5:30 PM.

CDS Salary

After being appointed, a Lieutenant’s monthly salary ranges from INR 56,100 to INR 1,77,500. Other applicants receive a monthly payment of INR 56,100/- for the duration of the training programme. From Lieutenant to Brigadier, one receives a monthly wage of INR 15,500/- for military service.

CDS Exam Pattern

Military Academy, Air Force Academy, and Naval Academy of India

All papers are objective in nature.

Officers’ Training Institution

Each paper has objective type questions.

Some Important things concerning Exam:-

• For each course, the maximum points assigned to the written exams and the interviews will be identical.
• All examinations will consist solely of multiple-choice questions.
• In the Objective Type Question Papers, a candidate will be penalised (Negative Marking, One-Third (0.33)) for marking incorrect answers.
• The test booklets (Question Papers) for General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be printed in both Hindi and English.
• Candidates are required to compose their papers by hand. Under no circumstances will a scribe be permitted to write their replies for them.
• The Commission has the ability to establish qualifying scores for any or all examination subjects.
• Candidates are not permitted to use calculators when responding to objective-type examinations (Test Booklets). Therefore, they should not bring such items into the Examination Room.
• The maximum marks assigned to the written examination and the interviews will be the same for each degree, i.e. 300, 300, 300, and 200 respectively for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy, and Officers’ Training Academy.

Time Management

• First, applicants should have time management skills. Therefore, students can complete the topic paper within the time limit.
• Then, candidates should begin preparations at least three to six months beforehand.
• Additionally, students should have a consistent study regimen.
• In addition, they must create a schedule and provide 6 to 8 hours.
• They should also devote sufficient time to preparing their weekly revisions.
• They should actually take breaks in between. So, they can maintain a level head and composure during the exam.
• Additionally, they should boost their confidence. Therefore, people should become involved in all India’s current concerns.

Solving Previous Year’s Examinations

• The applicants must pass the examinations from the previous year. As a result, they will benefit from it. Additionally, they will be well-prepared for any exam questions.
• In addition, the applicant should use the timers on their watches to simulate exams.
• Therefore, it aids candidates in time management.
• In addition, it gives the applicant the experience of taking the actual exam.

Tests of Intelligence and Personality

The SSB interview procedure consists of two stages: stage I and stage II of the Selection process. Only candidates who pass stage I of the SSB interview are permitted to participate in stage II.

• Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) Picture Perception* Description Tests comprise Stage I. (PP&DT). The candidates will be narrowed down based on their performance in both the OIR Test and PP&DT.
• Phase II includes the Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests, and Conference. These examinations span four days. This information is available on the Indian Army’s career website.

The candidate’s personality is evaluated by three distinct evaluators: The Interviewing Officer, the Officer of Group Testing, and the Psychologist. There is no individualised weighting for each test. Assessors only issue marks after considering the candidate’s performance in all examinations holistically.

Test and Interviews by the Air Force Selection Board

All applicants who have submitted their resumes to the Air Force through several channels will be required to participate in only one round of testing and/or interviews. Common applicants who do not pass the Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or the Pilot Aptitude Battery examinations as an NCC or Airmen candidate will only be summoned for OLQ testing for the Army/Navy/OTA if they have applied through the CDS Exam.

CDS Syllabus

Candidates’ intelligence, personality, and grammatical aptitude will be tested using the CDS curriculum, which was designed by the relevant Central Defense Services authorities.

Candidates for this examination must be familiar with all of the CDS syllabus 2025 topics and should have adequate preparation for this examination. Those with a thorough understanding of the CDS curriculum will have a greater chance of passing the examination.

The CDS curriculum includes Reading Comprehension, Vocabulary, Economics, History, Number System, and Percentages, among other disciplines. The applicants must read the entire page and produce a list of the major subjects included in the CDS curriculum for 2025. The portions featured in the CDS curriculum for candidates pursuing positions at IAFA, INA, and IMA are as follows:

• English
• General Knowledge
• The Fundamentals of Mathematics

The English and topic expertise of applicants for OTA positions are examined to determine whether or not they match the position’s qualifications.

General Knowledge Examination for CDS 

During this phase of the screening process, candidates are evaluated based on their level of acquaintance with current global events. The applicants are responsible for maintaining a current awareness of world events. Questions often concern topics such as Indian history, politics, economics, general science, and similar topics.

The English section of the CDS Curriculum.

Typically, applicants may perceive this section to be difficult; nevertheless, if they approach the primary components of the CDS curriculum with the proper approach, they will be able to pass this exam with ease. In this round of the screening procedure, candidates are evaluated based on their grammatical proficiency and English language proficiency. Candidates for the CDS can establish their areas of skill and difficulty spots by working through the curriculum-less topics and then organising their study time accordingly.

• Fill in the blanks
• Reading Comprehension
• Vocabulary (Synonyms/ Antonyms/ Phrases)
• Sentence Rearrangement (Jumbled sentences)
• Spotting Error
• Sentence Improvement/ Correction

Elementary mathematics for CDS Exam

The topics of arithmetic, trigonometry, geometry, measurement, and statistics, among others, are intensively emphasised throughout the elementary mathematics curriculum of the CDS. If you want to increase your preparation and outcomes in this area, you must engage in consistent practise and make a concerted effort. In order to complete these questions within the allocated time and achieve the desired outcomes, the applicants must maintain their accuracy and speed.

CDS Syllabus: Exam Preparation Suggestions

For applicants to perform extraordinarily well on the examination, it is necessary that they prepare enough. The candidates must create a failsafe method for covering the essential curriculum material in the allowed time and also be able to complete the examination within the allotted time. For the purpose of assisting applicants in excelling in the examination, we have made available on this page the professional preparation tips.

• They must familiarise themselves with the CDS curriculum and examination format.
• Create a strategy that accounts for this, taking into account both the subjects that carry the highest weight and the candidates’ areas of weakness.
• They should consistently practise the questions from the previous year in order to assess and enhance their level of preparation.
• They must continue to review the previously gathered information.
• They will need to review the foundations in order to obtain the speed and accuracy required to complete the examination within the allocated time.

CDS Cutoff

The CDS cut off 2025 is influenced by a variety of factors, and as a result, it fluctuates annually. In spite of this, the range in which the cutoff is typically adjusted due to these variables. The applicants are responsible for understanding every factor that goes into determining the CDS cutoff. Examine the items mentioned in the list that follows.

• The number of applicants to the CDS examination in 2025
• Vacancies that have been publicised by the appropriate authorities
• The degree of difficulty of the examination, categorised as easy, moderate, or severe.

The Best Study Books for the CDS 1 Exam

Best books for English CDS 1

The primary purpose of the English section of the examination is to evaluate the applicants’ understanding of grammar and vocabulary. Students may study the following publications to prepare for the English section of the CDS examination:

• Wren & Martin’s High School English Grammar & Composition by S Chand
• Word Power Made Easy by Norman Lewis
• Objective General English by SP Bakshi

The Top General Knowledge Books for the CDS 1 Exam in 2025

Due to the impossibility of keeping books current, the Current Affairs element of the General Knowledge section should be explored using online sources. Prepare for the GK section by consulting the books and other resources indicated below.

• General knowledge by Manohar Pandey
• Manorama Yearbook by Malayala Manorama publishers
• Daily newspapers like The Hindu, Indian Express etc

2025’s Leading Mathematics Textbooks for the CDS 1 Exam

In order to perform well on the mathematics section of the exam, it is necessary to have a thorough comprehension of the concepts presented in each section as well as to engage in substantial practise. The following books will assist you in accomplishing your objective:

• Quantitative Aptitude for Competitive Examinations by RS Aggarwal
• Mathematics for CDS Examination by RS Aggarwal

Duties and Accountabilities

If you are fortunate enough to be selected for duty in one of the military branches, the remainder of your life will be organised for you.

In addition to a salary, you receive benefits, a pension, and a number of other benefits that are unavailable in the private sector.

Depending on which branch of the armed forces you choose to join, your duties may at times be challenging.

Due to the possibly rigorous and regimented nature of your employment, you must prepare yourself for it.

Candidates who successfully complete the Combined Defense Services training programme and graduate with the rank of a designated officer are entitled for the salary and allowances associated with that rank.

Frequently Asked Questions(FAQs)

1. How many opportunities does a candidate have to take the CDS Exam?

Ans: There is no limit on the number of times you can take the CDS exam if you are within the required age range. The applicants may take the examination until they reach the maximum age permitted by the CDS criteria.

2. Annually, does the CDS curriculum undergo revisions?

Ans: No, neither the CDS curriculum nor the types of questions commonly asked on the exam have changed substantially over time. The CDS curriculum is not revised annually; however, the General Awareness curriculum has no boundaries because it evaluates applicants based on their acquaintance with current events and ongoing affairs. Consequently, the questions in this section have been adjusted accordingly.

3. Is the CDS cutoff number disclosed differently for the written examination and the final selection?

Ans: It is true that the CDS cutoff is published after the written exam, and only those applicants who meet it will be permitted to move on to the SSB interview. The combined score from both the written examination and the SSB interview will be utilised to generate the final merit list.

4. How much time should I devote to preparation for the CDS exam, and are the NCERT books useful?

Ans: It is feasible to pass the CDS exam with only six to eight months of preparation. NCERT Books must be utilised for the preparation of all competitive examinations. These publications are commonly recognised as the most reputable sources of information on any subject that may appear on a government examination, such as the CDS, AFCAT, or CAPF, or other government examinations.

5. Is a high school diploma necessary to apply for CDS?

Ans: No, Class 12 graduates are not eligible to apply for the CDS examination. After completing the 12th grade, candidates are entitled to apply for the NDA examination.

6. Does the CDS curriculum differ from the IAS programme?

Ans: No, the CDS and IAS examinations have distinct course frameworks. The major purpose of the examinations is to assess which applicants are best prepared to achieve the end objectives. For instance, the CDS is responsible for hiring individuals to work in strategy and defence, while the IAS is responsible for filling positions within the civil service. Some of the papers on both sets of exams are identical, but the subject matter, marking scheme, and level of difficulty are distinct.

7. Must CDS 1 certification be obtained before moving on to CDS 2?

Ans: No, the CDS 1 and CDS 2 exams are components of the same annual examination. A candidate must score well on at least one of the two CDS examination sessions per year in order to be considered for employment.

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Mohiniyattam dance: History, Features and Exponents 21 Jul 2024, 3:04 am

Mohiniyattam

Mohiniyattam simply means dance of enchantress. It traces its origin to the mythological story of samudra manthan that is churning of the sea in which lord Vishnu disguises in the form of Mohini to take back the Amrit pot from the Asuras.

History

Historically this classical dance of Kerala was patronised by rulers of Travancore. Ancient texts discussing this dance form include Natya Shastra by Bharat Muni and Vyavharmala by Mazhamagalam Narayanam.

In the modern times it was revived by Malyali poet VN Menon under the patronage of Mukunda Raja.

Features of Mohiniyattam

• Mohiniyattam is one of the 8 Classical Dances recognised by Sangeet Natak Akademi.
• It symbolises the element of air through its performance.
• There are 40 basic dance steps in Mohiniyattam which are known as Attava Vakul.
• It started as a solo female dance preserved is still performed by females only.
• More than the footwork, emphasis is given to hand gestures and Mukhabhinaya or subtle facial expressions.
• The poses and the gestures of Mohiniyattam are inspired from bharatnatyam and energy is drawn from Kathakali.
• Mohiniyattam is characterised by its smooth, flowing movements, which are often compared to the swaying of a bamboo tree in the wind.
• Mohiniyattam is a dance form that embodies the feminine spirit, with an emphasis on grace, beauty, and sensuality.
• Mudras are yet another notable feature. Mohiniyattam uses a range of mudras (hand gestures) to convey emotions and tell stories.
• Mohiniyattam places great emphasis on facial expression and eye movements to convey emotions and moods.
• Costume is of utmost importance in Mohiniyattam. Mohiniyattam dancers wear traditional Kerala costumes, including a white kasavu silk saree with a gold border and ornamental jewellery.
• Mohiniyattam is often performed in temples and festivals.
• Carnatic music is used during the performance. The lyrics are in Manipravalam (which is a macaronic language based on Sanskrit and Tamil/Malayalam).
• Instruments used are:- cymbals, Veena, drums, flutes among others.
• Major themes include Vaishnavism or Krishna Bhakti.

Overall, Mohiniyattam is a beautiful and intricate dance form that showcases the grace, beauty, and expression of the feminine spirit.

Read about the Folk Dances of India Here.

Exponents

Famous exponents of Mohiniyattam includes Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma, Madhuri Amma, Jayaprabha Menon, Sunanda Nair, Radha Dutta, Rema Shrikant, Dr. Vyjayanthimala Bali, and Dr. Padma Subrahmanyam.

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Exploring the Rich Tapestry of Classical Dances of India 18 Jul 2024, 12:33 pm

India, known for its cultural diversity and deep-rooted traditions, boasts a plethora of classical dance forms, each with its own unique style, repertoire, and history. These dances not only reflect the country’s cultural heritage but also serve as a medium to convey stories from mythology, spirituality, and everyday life.

Read about the Folk Dances of India here.

Recognition and classification

The status of a dance as classical dance is determined or accorded by Sangeet Natak Akademi. Presently 8 dances are categorised as classical dances by Sangeet Natak Akademi. The ministry of culture recognises 9 classical dances including the Chhau dance.

Features of classical dances

Each of the classical dances are known for their unique dress, expressions, mudras and other distinctive features:

1. Technique and Form: They have highly developed techniques with specific rules for body movement, footwork, hand gestures (mudras), and facial expressions (abhinaya).

Ex- Katakhastha Mudra (symbolises om)

2. Costumes and Makeup: Performers wear traditional costumes that are often elaborate, along with specific makeup styles that enhance facial expressions and visibility under stage lights.

Ex- Different colours denoting different emotions in Kathakali.

3. Music and Rhythm: They are accompanied by classical music that follows complex rhythmic patterns (taal) and melodic structures (ragas), often performed live with instruments like tabla, mridangam, sitar, or flute.

Ex- Use of carnatic music is a common feature in south indian dances.

4. Narrative and Themes: Classical dances often depict stories from mythology, folklore, or spiritual themes. Each movement and gesture (mudra) contributes to storytelling (abhinaya).

Ex- Stories Shiv and Parvati associated with the Manipuri Dance

5. Training and Guru-Shishya Tradition: Dancers undergo rigorous training typically under a guru (teacher) in a tradition known as Guru-Shishya Parampara. Training includes both physical practice and theoretical understanding of the art form.

Ex- Different gharana associated with different teachers

6. Expression and Emotion: Expressing emotions (rasa) through facial expressions, gestures, and body movements is a key element. Dancers strive to evoke specific feelings and moods within the audience.

Ex- Lasya and Tandav.

7. Spiritual and Cultural Significance: Many classical dances have roots in religious rituals and spiritual practices, serving as a means of devotion (bhakti) or a way to convey philosophical ideas.

Ex- Common themes include Vaishnavism and Shavism devotion.

8. Solo and Group Performances: While some forms are traditionally performed solo, others involve group performances where synchronisation and coordination are crucial. Some of the dances which were initially performed as group dances are sometimes performed as solo performances. Ex- Ekcharya lashya

Overall, classical dance forms are characterized by their adherence to tradition, meticulous technique, spiritual essence, and aesthetic beauty. These unique features of classical dance distinguishes them with folk dances of India.

List of 8 Classical Dances

Let’s delve into some of the prominent classical dances of India:

Bharatanatyam:

Originating in Tamil Nadu, Bharatanatyam is one of the oldest classical dance forms of India. It is characterized by intricate footwork, expressive gestures (mudras), and vibrant facial expressions. Typically performed by solo female dancers, Bharatanatyam often portrays stories from Hindu mythology and spiritual themes. The dance repertoire includes Alarippu, Jatiswaram, Varnam, and Tillana, showcasing a blend of grace, rhythm, and storytelling.

Kathak:

Hailing from Northern India, Kathak has its roots in the storytelling traditions of ancient temples. Kathak dancers, both male and female, are known for their fast footwork (tatkars), pirouettes, and intricate rhythmic patterns (tukras). The dance form incorporates both Hindu and Muslim influences, reflecting a synthesis of cultures over centuries. Kathak performances often include pure dance sequences (nritta), expressive storytelling (nritya), and emotive aspects (abhinaya).

Odissi:

Originating from Odisha, Odissi is characterized by its fluid and lyrical movements, inspired by temple sculptures. It is known for its emphasis on sculpturesque poses (bhangis), serene expressions, and intricate hand gestures (mudras). Odissi traditionally explores themes of devotion, mythology, and love through its repertoire of mangalacharan, pallavi, abhinaya, and moksha.

Kathakali:

Hailing from Kerala, Kathakali is renowned for its elaborate costumes, dramatic makeup, and stylized movements. It is often referred to as a dance-drama, combining dance, music, and acting. Kathakali performances typically depict stories from the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata, characterized by larger-than-life characters, expressive facial makeup (vismayam), and synchronized movements.

Kuchipudi:

Originating from Andhra Pradesh, Kuchipudi is known for its blend of rhythmic footwork, graceful movements, and dramatic storytelling. It encompasses both solo and group performances, often highlighting themes from mythology and folklore. Kuchipudi is distinctive for its use of plate rhythms (talam), intricate footwork (jathis), and lively narrative techniques.

Manipuri:

From Manipur in Northeast India, Manipuri dance is deeply rooted in the region’s cultural and religious practices. Known for its gentle, fluid movements, Manipuri dance often revolves around themes of love and devotion to Krishna. It incorporates delicate hand gestures (hastas), intricate footwork (chali), and graceful body movements that evoke a sense of spirituality and aesthetic beauty.

Conclusion

The classical dances of India not only serve as artistic expressions but also as cultural ambassadors that transcend geographical boundaries. They embody centuries of tradition, spirituality, and storytelling, making them an integral part of India’s rich cultural tapestry. As these dance forms continue to flourish, they remind us of the timeless beauty and diversity that define India’s cultural heritage.

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Unveiling the Beauty of Bharatnatyam: History, Features, and more 14 Jul 2024, 9:49 am

Origin and history

Bharatnatyam is also known as Tanjore natyam or dashiyattam. It derives its name from Bharatmuni. It is also called Bhava, Raga & Tala natyam which means it is a dance of expression, melody and rhythm. The origin of Bharat natyam is based on the devadasi system. This system and the dance form dates back to 2000 years ago. As per devadasi system, young girls were donated to temples as a part of worship and these girls dedicated their life to that temple by dancing for their lifetime. This system was highly criticised due to it being exploitative and immoral. As such the devadasi system was banned. It further led to decline of dance form. In this scenario a freedom fighter E Krishna Iyer revived the dance form without any system. Later Rukmini devi Arundale through her performances gave global recognition to Bharatnatyam.

Read about other folk dances of India Here.

Features

Some of the feature of Bharatnatyam are as follows

• Bharatnatyam is often referred to as the ‘fire dance’, as it is the manifestation of fire in the human body. Most of the movements in Bharatnatyam resemble to that of a dancing flame.
• In this dance form, equal emphasis is given on both the Tandava and Lasya aspects of dance, with major emphasis on ‘mudras’.
• One of the principal mudras is ‘Katakamukha Hasta’ in which three fingers are joined to symbolise ‘Om’.
• In a Bharatnatyam recital, the knees are mostly bent and the weight is equally distributed across both the feet.
• It is also characterised by the ‘Ekcharya lasyam’ style in which a single dancer plays different roles.
• During the performance, Mantra recitation is often accompanied which is recited by Nattuvanar or who is known as Nattuvanar.
• Carnatic classical music is used during the performance.
• It originally started as a dance form preserved for women but later men also started performing it.
• It is mostly performed as a group dance but solo dances are also performed.

Steps performed

• Alarippu – It refers to invocation of god to seek his blessings
• Jatiswaram – It is pure dance movement
• Shabdam – Beginning of abhinaya (expression) in the dance starts in this step
• Varnam – It tends to elaborate the expression
• Padam – Mastery in Abhinaya
• Jawali – energetic performance on short Love lyrics
• Thillana – It is the concluding stage. Joyous and exuberant movement symbolises temporary salvation.

Famous exponents of Bharatnatyam

Ragini devi, BalaSaraswati, Yamini Krishnamurthy, Padma subramaniam, Mrinalini sarabhai, Mallika Sarabhai, Alarmel Velli, Meenakshi Sundaram Pillai,  Leela Samson, Shanta Dhananjayan/VP Dhananjayan, Sonal Mansingh

Note :- Rukmani devi Arundale is the founder of Kalakshetra school.

Previous Year Question

Bharatnatyam and Kuchipudi dancer Yamini Krishnamurthy was awarded which of the following awards in 2016? (Ssc cgl 2022)

Answer- Padma Vibhushan

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Folk Dances of India | Folk Dances for UPSC, SSC – Eduexa 3 Jul 2024, 12:58 pm

What is Folk Dance?

Folk dances are traditional dances that are deeply rooted in a region’s or community’s culture, history, and traditions. They are often passed down from generation to generation and are typically performed at social gatherings, festivals, and celebrations. Folk dances are an integral part of a community’s identity and are a way to preserve and share cultural heritage. They are usually performed with enthusiasm and energy, and their beauty lies in their simplicity, authenticity, and connection to the people and place.

Read a complete guide on nagara style of temple here.

Characteristics of folk dances

Folk dances are usually characterised by:

• Traditional movements and steps
• Local music and instruments
• Costumes and attire that reflect the region’s heritage
• Storytelling through dance, often depicting everyday life, myths, legends, or historical events
• Community participation, with everyone encouraged to join in
• Simple, rustic, and spontaneous expressions
• Often, a connection to agricultural cycles, seasons, or religious rituals

Difference between classical dance and folk dance

State Wise list of folk dances

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AI WASHING: ARTIFICIAL INTELLIGENCE AND ITS CONCERN 1 Jul 2024, 7:57 am

Recent Context

Some of the companies are seen using Ai washing.

What do you understand by the term AI washing?

AI washing is derived from the word green washing. Green washing refers to company exaggerating their environmental claims i.e. companies claiming their contribution towards environment sustainability without any actual change.  Similarly Ai washing is concerned with making false claims regarding the usage of AI but in reality not doing so.

What is AI?

AI stands for artificial intelligence which is the ability of a computer, or a robot controlled by a computer to do tasks that are usually done by humans because they require human intelligence and sophistication.

Although there is no AI that can perform the wide variety of tasks an ordinary human can do, some AI can match humans in specific tasks.

Applications of AI

Knowing the meaning of Ai we can tell Ai would do wonders in all the fields where its application is concerned. Some of the applications/ advantages of the AI are as follows

• Economical – Economically AI can be used for various managerial and statistical operations. Market related issues of skilled labour unavailability can be solved by AI. It can further have an application in financial markets.
• Social – An economy that fusions its growth with technological advancements also develops the society as a whole. Living standards and lifestyles changes are likely to improve social status of the people concerned.
• Political – Use of good governance tools and advanced mechanisms will ensure better political outcomes. It can also address concerns related to freebies, burden on state exchequer and criminalisation of politics etc.
• Medical – Use of AI in medical advancements is not something new. From drug delivery to robotic surgeries are all applications of AI.
• Science – AI has great application in exploration, research and development of science and technology. Advancement in this field can be accelerated with the help of AI.
• Agriculture –Precision farming, nutrient profiling, land and soil based plantation will make the agriculture sector more efficient and productive.
• Space research and exploration– Use of AI from maneuvering to making robots for spacecraft missions have a lot of potential in space sector.

Concerns related to AI

Displacement of jobs : AI automation may lead to the displacement of certain labour intensive jobs as machines and algorithms can perform tasks that were previously done by humans. This may result in structural unemployment and require re-skilling or retraining of the workforce.

Ethical Concerns: AI raises ethical concerns such as the potential for bias in algorithms, invasion of privacy, and the ethical implications of autonomous decision-making systems.

Heavy costs: AI management and devices would need heavy investments which might result in deviation of budgetary resources from other equally important sectors and worse heavy debts.

Reliance on Data Availability and Quality: AI systems heavily rely on data availability and quality. Biased or incomplete data can lead to inaccurate results or reinforce existing biases in decision-making.

Security Risks: AI systems are at higher risks from cyber attacks and exploitation. Malicious actors can manipulate AI algorithms or use AI-powered tools for malicious purposes, posing security risks and threats.

Lack of humanly oversight: Blindly relying on AI without proper human oversight or critical evaluation can lead to errors or incorrect decisions, particularly if the AI system encounters unfamiliar or unexpected situations.

Lack of emotional quotient: AI cannot have the EQ which is highly needed at various situations in different domains. For example- Whether a medical surgery is to be performed or not considering age and other factors is something which AI cannot think of.

Lack of Transparency: Some AI models, such as deep learning neural networks, can be difficult to interpret, making it challenging to understand the reasoning behind their decisions or predictions (referred to as the “black box” problem).

Concerns related to AI washing?

AI washing is an unethical practice which poses serious threat to overall development and growth of AI.

Lack of actual investment in AI –Assuming technical firms are investing in AI, government may be diverting their investment on to other sectors leading to no or very less investment in AI sector.

No real advancement in AI –AI Washing leads us to believe there has been great advancement in development and use of AI when the actual progress was limited. It can lead to misguided investments in superficial enhancements, slowing real progress in AI technologies

Complicate decision making -AI washing can complicate decision making for businesses that are genuinely looking for valuable AI solutions. This can hinder their digital transformation efforts, stifle innovation, and jeopardise performance.

Discouraging consumers –Consumers might get discouraged to use AI leading to non utilization of potential of AI.

Global initiatives

In 2021, the Recommendation on the Ethics of Artificial Intelligence was adopted by UNESCO.

GPAI – The Prime Minister of India inaugurated the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) Summit. India is the lead chair of GPAI in 2024. The GPAI is an alliance of 28 countries; the European Union adopted the ‘New Delhi Declaration’ of the GPAI.

The Artificial Intelligence (AI) Safety Summit 2023 held at Bletchley Park, England has marked a significant turning point in the global approach to tackling the challenges posed by frontier AI technologies.

All these initiatives along with national level steps and participation of people to address the challenges associated with AI is essential to reap the benefits of AI and other advancements.

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MURAL PAINTINGS AND CAVE PAINTINGS UPSC 30 Jun 2024, 12:15 pm

Mural painting refers to the painting done directly on the walls. Indian Mural Paintings are generally the paintings that are made on the walls of caves and palaces.

The earliest evidence of the murals is the beautiful frescoes painted on the caves of Ajanta and Ellora, the Bagh caves and Sittanvasal cave.

In the old scripts and literature, there was much evidence of mural paintings.

According to Vinaya Pitaka, the noted courtesan of Vaishali – Amrapali employed painters to paint the kings, traders and merchants of that time on the walls of her palace.

Freshco mural paintings: Technique and features

Vishnudharmottara, a Sanskrit text of the 5th/6th century CE gives a detailed description about Indian wall painting techniques and processes.

Features:-

• The process of these paintings appears to have been the same in all the early examples that have survived with an only exception in the Rajarajeshwara temple at Tanjore which is supposed to be done in a true fresco method over the surface of the rock.
• Most of the colours were locally available.
• Brushes were made up from the hair of animals, such as goats, camels, mongooses, etc.
• Naturally obtained colours were widely used. These principal colours widely used were red(obtained usually from animal blood), ochre, vivid red (vermilion), yellow ochre, indigo blue, lapis lazuli, lamp black (Kajjal), chalk white, terraverte and green.

Also read about GI Tags in India.

Methods of mural paintings

• Freshco Mural- In the very first step, a mixture of cow dung clay and rice husk is applied on the wall of the cave. Then it is coated with lime plaster. In the final step an image is created and colours are applied. The initial mixture absorbs the colour and it gets imprinted on the wall of the cave.
• The ground was coated with an exceedingly thin layer of lime plaster over which paintings were drawn in water colours.
• In the true fresco method, the paintings are done when the surface wall is still wet, so that the pigments go deep inside the wall surface.

Major themes of Mural paintings

Major themes of Mural paintings include spiritualist ideas and teachings of Jainism, Buddhism, Vaishnavism, Shaivism, Hinduism along with secular aspects of life. Some of the paintings also depict royal figures and dynastic heroics or achievements.

Earliest and surviving mural paintings at different locations

Along with cave paintings other notable features of ancient and medieval art includes temple architecture, stupa structures, pillars, inscriptions and coinage.

Practice Questions

1. There are only two known examples of cave paintings of the Gupta period in ancient India. One of these is paintings of Ajanta caves. Where is the other surviving example of Gupta paintings? (UPSC 2010)(a) Bagh caves
   (b) Ellora caves
   (c) Lomas Rishi cave
   (d) Nasik caves

   Answer- (b)

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MBBS full form | What is MBBS | Top Colleges | Courses | Ranking 27 Jun 2024, 1:17 am

What is MBBS?

MBBS full form Medicinae Baccalaureus and Baccalaureus Chirurgiae is a professional undergraduate degree in medical science. Here we Discuss the Top MBBS colleges in India which give you idea to choose the best MBBS College.

It is an undergraduate degree pursued after completing the 10+2 curriculum. It is a well-known profession with significant value addition. Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery is the abbreviation for MBBS. It is a 5-and-a-half-year program, with the final year devoted to an internship in various medical departments.

We also provided the list of top Rajasthan PTET, check out here.

It is provided by medical colleges in nations that follow the United Kingdom’s tradition. According to Indian law, institutions that offer medical courses must be approved by the Medical Council of India. In India, more than 600 medical colleges offer seats in MBBS/BDS programs recognized by the Medical Council of India, based on historical trends.

The curriculum is divided into nine broad semesters in which you will study Anatomy, Paediatrics, Pathology, Physiology, Biochemistry, Community Medicine, Surgery, and numerous other topics. In the hospital and pharmaceutical industries, MBBS students have ample employment opportunities.

Master of Science (MS) or Doctor of Medicine (MD) courses are additional career options available to MBBS graduates. This course is also extremely competitive, so students must be passionate about taking it; otherwise, it will be difficult to succeed in this field.

MBBS: Specialisations offered

MBBS is a required undergraduate medical science program for all candidates aspiring to become physicians. There is no option for specialisation here, but candidates can choose from a variety of specialisations at the postgraduate level. 

• ENT (Ear, Nose and Throat)
• Obstetrics & Gynaecology
• Paediatrics
• Chest Treatment
• Family Practice
• Internal medicine
• Radiology
• Psychiatry
• Anaesthesiology
• Orthopaedics
• Dermatology
• Opthalmology
• General Surgery
• Biophysivs 
• Community medicine
• Geriatrics
• Infectious disease
• Microbiology
• Pathology
• Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation

Eligibility Criteria for MBBS colleges in India

It is important to review the prerequisites and other prerequisite course requirements before applying to a course and submitting an application for a course.  The prerequisites for each course can be quite different from one another.

The following are a few of the requirements you must meet to gain admission to an MBBS college in India:

• Minimum marks: Students must have completed their 10+2 from a recognized board with subjects such as Physics, Chemistry, and Biology and English as a core subject with at least a 50 percent average. However, the minimum mark requirement for the reserved category is 40 percent.
• Minimum age: When applying to the MBBS program, the applicant must be at least 17 years old. If the student is younger than this age, they will not be considered for admission. The maximum age for a student should be 25 years old.
• The student must meet the Medical Council of India’s (MCI) additional eligibility requirements for MBBS.
• Should pass the below-mentioned entrance exams for admission into MBBS.
• Candidates must be Indian citizens, including those with OCI/PIO status.

MBBS Admission process

To gain admission to the best MBBS medical schools, you must satisfy the prerequisites listed above. Then, you must take the state- or nationally-administered entrance examinations. Consequently, you must pass the tests to enroll in MBBS. Therefore, passing the entrance exam is a prerequisite for admission, and you must do so. Without this, you cannot proceed.

If you want to get your MBBS after completing your 10+2, you simply need to prepare for a single exam that is required by the majority of states and colleges. The test is called “NEET,” which is an abbreviation for “National Eligibility and Entrance Test.” In addition, two more examinations have been merged with NEET.

All private, public, central, and “deemed” colleges use the NEET score to determine who is admitted. Counselling is utilised to determine who will receive an MBBS seat based on their position on the merit list, their preferences, and the number of available seats. In India, 532 medical schools offer a total of 76,928 MBBS seats. AIIMS has 15 locations in India, including its flagship campus in New Delhi, with around 1,205 seats in total. JIPMER, on the other hand, administers an entrance exam to fill its 200 available seats at its campuses in Puducherry and Karaikal.

Want to know IPS full form, check this article now.

This is all you need to know in order to gain admission to an MBBS program in India. Therefore, your admission depends only on your grades and the documentation you present to counselling. If all goes well, you will be admitted to the college of your choice.

Expenses in Top MBBS Colleges in India

The main costs that both public and private top medical schools have to pay for are:

• Tuition Fee: The tuition fee is the money that each person who wants to become a doctor must pay to their own medical school for the medical education they are getting.
• Hostel Fee: The best medical schools in India pay for their housing with the hostel fee.
• Food: Usually, the price of food is included in the hostel fee, but if it isn’t, aspirants will have to pay a small amount for food in their hostel.
• Books and office supplies: Medical schools usually charge fees for books and office supplies to pay for the cost of giving students books.

Medical costs and other costs are usually covered by a small fee at medical schools.

Top MBBS Colleges in India

Students who have successfully completed the Class 12 Board exam in the Science stream with Physics, Chemistry, and Biology (PCB) as their core subjects are eligible to enrol in undergraduate medical programmes. 50% aggregate is the minimum amount that must be secured (45 per cent in case of reserved category candidates). Students who wish to enrol in postgraduate programmes must have graduated from a medical or related programme with a required internship. While postgraduate medical studies last three years, undergraduate medical education often lasts four to five years.

NEET UG scores are acceptable for undergraduate medical programmes like MBBS, BDS, BAMS, BUMS, and BSc (Hons) Nursing. Exams like the AP EAMCET, SAAT, etc., are recognised as entry requirements for other specialisations like pharmacy. Following are some important facts about the top MBBS Colleges in India:

Top Medical Colleges in India as per NIRF

When compiling their annual rankings of the best MBBS programmes in India, NIRF rely on tried and true research practises. The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) rates various colleges in India using standardised procedures and predetermined criteria. The weighting and ranking criteria used by NIRF to rate colleges depend on;

• Resources, Teaching, and Learning (TLR) – 30%
• Professional Practice (RP) and Research (RP): 30%
• Results of Graduation (GO): 15%
• Accessibility and Inclusivity (OI): 15%
• Peer Representation (PR) – 10%

The following table provides a ranking of the best MBBS programmes in India based on the results of the NIRF ranking for 2021:

The zone-wise ranking system that was made available  served as the foundation for the compilation of the list of the best MBBS colleges in all of India. The best universities in each of India’s four regions—the country’s north, south, east, and west—are detailed below.

North Zone Top MBBS Colleges

For undergraduate medical courses such as MBBS, BDS, BAMS, BUMS, BSc (Hons.) Nursing, NEET UG score is accepted. For other specialisations such as Pharmacy, entrance exams such as AP EAMCET, SAAT, etc., are accepted. The majority of the top medical colleges in India are located in Delhi/NCR, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu followed by Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh.

South Zone: Top MBBS Colleges

East Zone: Top MBBS Colleges

West Zone: Top MBBS Colleges

Top MBBS Colleges for Specialisations in India

In India, there are more than 500 different colleges that are solely dedicated to providing MBBS (Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery) degree programmes. Because the MBBS is a general course, none of the medical schools offer any specialisations after it.

Fundamental theoretical and practical sessions on human anatomy and physiology, medicine, surgery, and a variety of other topics are included in the MBBS programme. This course will provide students with an understanding of diseases, health conditions, and medicinal processes that can be applied to combat diseases, to analyse the cause of diseases, and to operate them.

However, in order to become a specialist, a candidate needs to pursue higher education at the master’s level with preferred specialisations after completing their MBBS at an institute that is recognised by the MCI. The following are some of the specialisations that can be pursued after completing an MBBS programme:

General Medicine, General Surgery, Immunology, Anesthesiology, Cranilogist, Clinical, Respiratory medicine, Continuous Urinary Surgery, Dermatology, Forensic Medicine, Endocrinology, Gastroenterology, Geriatrics, Pediatrics, Forensic medicine, Venereology and Leprosy, Psychiatry, Radiodiagnosis.

• Kasturba Medical College (KMC), Mangaluru
• AIIMS, Delhi is an acronym for the All India Institute of Medical Sciences.
• JIPMER stands for the Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research and it is located in Puducherry.
• Christian Medical College & Hospital (CMC), Vellore
• Institution for Higher Education and Research Named After Sri Ramachandra

Entrance Exams required for admission to Top Medical Colleges in India

The scores and ranks students earn in any level of a competitive entrance exam are taken into consideration when choosing students for admission to the best MBBS programmes in India. The admissions process may involve taking a test either offline or online. Depending on who is in charge of conducting the competition, the scoring pattern might have a negative marking or it might not have a negative marking at all.

When it comes to admissions, different colleges have different policies regarding the percentage of seats that are reserved based on the category type and management quota.

UR category have to face high cut off marks as compared to other category students.

On the basis of merit, some of the universities favour test scores from university level tests in addition to test scores from national level. The questions were taken from the curriculum for the 12th grade, including English, Aptitude, Personality, and other subjects.

National Level Entrance Exams

• Examination of National Eligibility and Admission to Undergraduate Programs (NEET-UG)
• Competition for Admission to the MBBS Program at the All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS MBBS)
• Admission to the Medical College of the Armed Forces (AFMC MBBS Admission)

University Level Entrance Exams

• The All India Medical Entrance Examination of Annamalai University (AU AIMEE)
• Medical School Applications for the Aligarh Muslim University (AMU MBBS)
• Amrita Medical Entrance Exam (Amrita MBBS)
• CMC Vellore MBBS/BDS Admissions (CMC Vellore MBBS)
• Admissions to the MBBS and BDS Programs at Delhi University (DU MBBS)
• Admissions to the MBBS and BDS Programs at Indraprastha University (IPU MBBS)
• Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER)
• The St. John’s Medical Admissions Test

Cut Off for admission in Top Medical Colleges

Every year, the minimum score required to enter MBBS colleges is recalculated. Because of how competitive the medical field currently is, you will need to put in a lot of effort to get into a good college. In order to join the line, you will need to pull your socks higher. The thresholds change depending on which candidate group they are considered to belong to. The categories are General, SC/ST/OBC, and the required percentage of marks is a higher for the General category compared to the other categories than it is for the SC/ST/OBC category. Even within each state, there is considerable variation in the cut-offs.

A number of different minimum scores required for entry into a given programme have been announced by various prestigious MBBS colleges. In order to continue with the admissions process for undergraduate or graduate level programmes, every student must ensure that they have achieved the minimum score or mark required.

The National Eligibility and Entrance Test for Undergraduates (NEET-UG), All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), and Jawaharlal Institute of Postgraduate Medical Education and Research (JIPMER) are a few examples of the entrance exams that are administered at the national and university level for undergraduate admissions that are based on merit into the top MBBS The NEET is the only exam accepted for entry into medical school.

Read here the complete guide on UG full form and PG grogram.

The cut-off is different each year due to the level of difficulty of the paper, the total number of candidates who took the exams, the category of candidates, and the quota reservation that the various college’s officials allot and implement for 15 percent of All India Quota seats and 85 percent of State Quota seats, respectively.

The NEET score is the sole criterion that is taken into consideration for admission to the best MBBS colleges in India. The following is a table that contains the NEET cut off scores from the previous year for the various top colleges’ MBBS programmes in the general category. This is to provide a general guideline for more effective preparation.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Which MBBS course is the best?

Ans. It is dependent on the student’s interests as well as the potential of the subject matter. After finishing your MBBS degree, you will be eligible to enrol in any of the following postgraduate courses or other medical specialisations: general medicine, general surgery, craniologist, cardiology, immunology, nephrology, paediatrics, psychiatry, and many others.

• MS (Microbiology)
• MS (Clinical Pathology)
• Occupational Health Master of Science (MS) Degree or Diploma.
• Diploma in Physical Medicine & Rehabilitation
• Certification in Obstetrics and Gynecology (Diploma)
• M. Tech (Biomedical Engineering and Biological Sciences) (Biomedical Engineering and Biological Sciences)
• The Master of Science in Hospital Administration degree.

2. How many points do you need to get on the NEET to get into a government or private college to study medicine?

Ans. In order to participate in the counselling process for any of the government colleges, applicants must first obtain the qualifying marks published by NEET for the academic year. The qualifying percentile for the previous year’s NEET was set at 50 for the general category, with marks ranging from 147 to 720. Meanwhile, the qualifying percentile was set at 40 for the SC, ST, and OBC categories. The cut off for the NEET exam has been released, and it is 15 percent for the AIQ and 85 percent for the state quota.

3. Are all medical doctors able to find work after graduation?

Ans. After obtaining a medical degree, students will have access to numerous employment and career opportunities. It is the only profession with a 100 percent job placement rate. No one in the country holds an MBBS degree but is unemployed.

4. In what year are MBBS students paid?

Ans. MBBS students are compensated only during their internship year and not for the remaining four and a half years. The stipend interns receive during their internship varies by college. The MBBS students at AIIMS receive the highest internship stipend.

5. How many points do you need to get on the NEET to get into a government or private college to study medicine?

Ans. In order to participate in the counselling process for any of the government colleges, applicants must first obtain the qualifying marks published by NEET for the academic year. The qualifying percentile for the previous year’s NEET was set at 50 for the general category, with marks ranging from 147 to 720. Meanwhile, the qualifying percentile was set at 40 for the SC, ST, and OBC categories. The cut off for the NEET exam has been released, and it is 15 percent for the AIQ and 85 percent for the state quota.

The post MBBS full form | What is MBBS | Top Colleges | Courses | Ranking appeared first on Eduexa.

Everything you need to know about RBI Grade B Exam- Latest Updates 24 Jun 2024, 3:50 am

The RBI Grade B Exam is one of the top exam amongst the Banking exams. It is conducted by RBI(Reserve Bank of India). If you have dream to work in the India’s and indeed one of the biggest Central Bank of the world, then it is the golden opportunity to crack the RBI Grade B Exam and work in the RBI. Here in this blog we are going to cover everything related to RBI Grade B Exams, so Let’s Start.

RBI Grade B Exam Overview

RBI Grade B Exam 2024

The RBI Grade B Exam is the most significant exam conducted in the country amongst the Banking exams. This is the only exam conducted by RBI to recruit the candidates for Grade B Office.

The RBI Grade B exam is a three-stage process, and the syllabus for written examinations comprise both an objective and a descriptive portion.

Another important thing to note is that the RBI Grade B openings are published for a variety of posts including- Officers in Grade ‘B’ (DR) – (General), Officers in Grade ‘B’ (DR) – DEPR, and Officers in Grade ‘B’ (DR) – DSIM.

RBI Grade B Recruitment Process/ Exam Pattern 2024

The Recruitment process for RBI Grade B consist of 3 phases which are:

• Preliminary Exam (Phase 1)
• Mains Exam (Phase 2)
• Interview (Phase 3)

If you want to become RBI Grade B Officer you need to clear all three phases.

Preliminary Exam:

This is basically an elimination phase in which out of Lakhs of Candidates thousands candidates got selected for the nest phase i.e. Mains.

This Phase consist of four subjects which are Reasoning, General Awareness, Quantitative Aptitude, and English Language. Each section carries specific weightage, and the total duration is 120 minutes and Maximum Marks is 200.

You have to clear the cut off marks to get into the next phase of exam i.e. Mains.

Mains Exam:

If you Qualify in the Preliminary exam, you allow to give Mains Exam. In this phase you have to score highest marks or as much marks as you can to get selected for the last phase i.e. Interview.

Phase II exam which includes both objective and descriptive portion is of total 300 marks.  

This phase comprises three descriptive papers: English Writing, Economic & Social Issues, and Finance & Management. Each paper is 3 hours long and carries 100 marks.

Interview:

This is the last Phase, candidates who scores the highest marks are called for interview and alike Mains you have to secure high marks in Interview to get selected.

After the Interview is over the List of candidates are out who got selected as RBI Grade B Officer.

RBI Grade B Officer Job Profile

You may be considering what the work profile of a ‘Grade B’ official involves.

As a layman, the vast majority realize that the RBI is the Central bank of India, and the cash stamping ace. Subsequently, it’s positively a basic foundation in our economy.

All things considered, getting posted as a Grade B official involves incredible glory. It offers the individual a chance to function as a committed, on-ground usable for the summit bank of India.

We should dive into additional subtleties so you get a decent image of what happens in backend. In this way, the following are a couple of capabilities that are performed by RBI Grade B official:

• Indeed, a RBI Grade B official investigates the credit examination arrangement of banks, KYC AML rules, cash vaults, working and the general security of the branch, and a large group of different things.
• The official’s work profile additionally frequently includes the errand of ensuring that banks under his purview capability according to the financial guidelines act 1949.
• This is an incredible obligation, as it includes safeguarding public cash and defending the interests of investors.
• Moreover, contingent upon your diligent effort, there’d likewise be extension for development inside the system of the association.
• Likewise, the Work profile would include a residency of as long as four years during a time of post-preliminary oversight. People are arbitrarily appointed to divisions. For instance, officials with experience in banking may be drafted into HRD or the other way around.
• Also, regular exchanges starting with one division then onto the next are the an integral part of this occupation profile. A fragment of Grade B officials may be engaged with the policymaking system.

Likewise, RBI, being the national bank of India, has the greater part of its workplaces in metropolitan and territorial focuses rather than the rustic ones.

RBI Grade B Officer Salary 2024

Talking about the prominent aspects, the RBI Grade B Salary 2024 is a factor that will of great interest for you. 

The basic pay is ₹ 55,200/-p.m, and the initial monthly gross emoluments stands at 1,16,914/- (approximately).

So, the students that apply each year don’t merely get inspired by the renumeration, it’s all the other perks you get along. 

The reason being that the RBI is known to be quite liberal in compensating even for the smallest expenses. 

Therefore, the RBI salary is not just inclusive of basic pay but also other allowances and such as – Dearness Allowance (DA), House Rent Allowance (HRA), medical allowance, etc., which make it even more attractive.   

The job of a RBI Grade B officer is lucrative with a salary that can be compared with high paying jobs in the corporate sector.

Moreover, since it undergoes changes every now and then, you can expect the salary to increase in due course of time.  

RBI Grade B Eligibility Criteria 2024

RBI Grade B Official Notification Released and you can check out whether you are eligible or not. Eligibility is a crucial aspect of an examination process; thus, we should get a good picture of the criteria for a green light. 

Here’s the detailed eligibility criteria of RBI Grade B 2024: 

Age Eligibility

You must be above the age of 21 years but must not have touched the 30th year of your life. As of 01st May, 2024, you must have been born not earlier than 01nd May, 1994 and not later than 01st May, 2003.  

If you have an M.Phil. or a Ph.D. degree, the upper age limits are 32 and 34 years respectively.

If you belong to the SC/ST category, there is a provision for relaxation of the upper age limit up to 5 years.

Educational Qualification

For other information regarding DEPR(Department of Economic and Policy Research) and DSIM(Department of Economic and Policy Research) you should check out official Notification of RBI.

RBI Grade B Vacancy 2024

Every Year RBI declare vacancies 200+ to recruit for RBI Grade B Officer. For Vacancies of 2024 we are waiting for official notification which will tell us how many vacancies are there this Year. In 2023 there are total 291 Vacancies for RBI Grade B posts.

RBI Grade B Application form 2024

While the application cycle for RBI Grade B 2024 has not begun at this point, you can investigate the subtleties connected with enrollment process for something very similar in 2023.

Already, the paper commercial distributed on 26th April 2023, though the authority warning of RBI Grade B officials’ enlistment delivered on ninth May 2023.

The notification states that the application form window will open on the same day as the announcement, which is May 9, 2023, and will remain open until June 9, 2023. Nonetheless, the end date of the application interaction was moved to sixteenth June 2023 (06:00 PM).

While hard work is the key to success, carefully filling out the application form determines what happens to that hard work.

Carefully complete the application form. It can cost a lot to make a small error.

Apply a reasonable level of investment prior to continuing with the accommodation of the application structure.

RBI Grade B Application Fees 2024

The Payment of the RBI Grade B Exam fee is the final step in filling the online application form.  It means that your application is considered final only when you successfully pay the Application fee.

You can only pay the RBI Grade B 2024 application fees online via Credit/debit card/IMPS/net-banking/mobile wallets and cash cards. On the successful payment of the Exam fee, you’d receive an e-receipt from the website stating the same.

This e-receipt would need to be saved by you along with the application form.

In case your RBI Grade B 2024 Exam fee payment is not successful, then you’d have to start the Exam fee payment process from the beginning.

RBI Grade B Syllabus 2024 (General Post)

RBI Grade B Syllabus for Phase I

Phase I as per RBI Grade B exam pattern 2024 is conducted for 200 marks. The syllabus for Phase I is divided into four parts: General Awareness, English Language, Quantitative Aptitude, and Reasoning. Candidates qualifying the exam by securing the minimum marks separately for each test are selected for Phase II. RBI Grade B syllabus for Phase I is given below:

RBI Grade B Syllabus for General Awareness

The major topics of General Awareness revolve around the Indian Economy and Financial Systems. RBI Grade B syllabus for General Awareness is given below:

• Banking & Financial, Economic News, Banking Terminology, Recent RBI News like Monetary policies, Important guidelines, Financial & Economics News, Economics terms, etc.
• Current Affairs both national and international, sports, awards, summits & conferences, schemes, agreement & deals, etc.
• Static GK like Parks, Dam, Thermal Power Plants, Mountains, Temples, Stadiums, Airports, etc.

RBI Grade B Syllabus for English Language

RBI Grade B English Language syllabus comprises reading comprehension and grammar. Some of the important topics for English Language section are given below:

• Reading Comprehension
• Cloze Test
• Para jumbles
• Spotting Error
• Phrase Replacement / Error Spotting
• Para Completion
• Fill in the Blanks (Vocabulary)

RBI Grade B Syllabus for Quantitative Aptitude

The Quantitative Aptitude section appears in the Phase 1 exam of RBI Grade B. Candidates need to prepare this section in a focused manner. Candidates must have their basics cleared and practise consistently to perform better in the exam.

• Number Series
• Data Interpretation (Missing DI, Pie Chart, Caselet DI, Mix DI)
• Quadratic Equation
• Miscellaneous Questions (Profit Loss, Average, SI & CI, Ratio & Proportion, Time & Work, Time, Speed & Distance, Boats & Streams, etc.)
• Data Sufficiency

RBI Grade B Syllabus for Reasoning Ability

The Reasoning syllabus of RBI Grade B prelims can be aced easily if prepared well. Candidates need to have factual knowledge of the different topics. A detailed study plan with the best books will improve the level of preparation. RBI Grade B Reasoning Ability syllabus is given below:

• Syllogism
• Seating Arrangement
• Linear Arrangement
• Puzzle
• Input-Output
• Logical / Analytical Reasoning
• Data Sufficiency
• Inequality
• Coding-Decoding
• Miscellaneous Questions

RBI Grade B Syllabus for Phase II

The phase II of RBI Grade B comprises three papers: I, II & III. RBI has revised the exam pattern of the phase-II exam. The exam pattern has been revised for Paper-I (Economic and Social Issues) and III (Finance and Management). As per the revised pattern, Paper-I and III comprise both objective and descriptive-type questions. 50 per cent of the questions comprise objective type and 50 per cent are descriptive type. The pattern of Paper-II (Writing Skills) remains the same as before. Paper-II comprises descriptive-type questions. RBI Grade B syllabus for all three papers is given below:

RBI Grade B Syllabus for Economic and Social Issues (Paper 1)

RBI has revised the syllabus for Paper 1. The topics and sub-topics are given below:

1. Growth and Development: Measurement of growth: National Income and per capita income-Poverty Alleviation and Employment Generation in India-Sustainable Development and Environmental issues.

2. Indian Economy: Economic History of India-Changes in Industrial and Labour Policy, Monetary and Fiscal Policy since reforms of 1991-Priorities and recommendations of Economic Survey and Union Budget-Indian Money and Financial Markets: Linkages with the economy-Role of Indian banks and Reserve Bank in the development process, Public Finance – Political Economy, Industrial Developments in India, Indian Agriculture-Services sector in India.

3. Globalization: Opening up of the Indian Economy, Balance of Payments, Export-Import Policy, International Economic Institutions, IMF and World Bank, WTO, Regional Economic Cooperation; International Economic Issues.

4. Social Structure in India: Multiculturalism, Demographic Trends, Urbanisation and Migration, Gender Issues-Social Justice: Positive Discrimination in favour of the underprivileged, Social Movements, Indian Political System, Human Development, Social Sectors in India, Health and Education.

RBI Grade B Syllabus for English (Writing Skills) (Paper 2)

The paper on English is framed to assess the writing skills of candidates. Besides, it will test the candidate’s understanding of the given topic:

RBI Grade B Syllabus for Finance and Management (Paper 3)

The questions on Finance will be asked from the following topics:

1. Financial System

• Regulators of Banks and Financial Institutions
• Reserve Bank of India- functions, and conduct monetary policy
• Banking System in India
• Structure and concerns
• Financial Institutions-SIDBI, Exim Bank, NABARD, NHB, etc
• Changing landscape of banking sector
• Impact of the Global Financial Crisis of 2007-08 and the Indian response

2. Financial Markets

Primary and Secondary Markets (Forex, Money, Bond, Equity, etc.), functions, instruments, recent developments.

3. General Topics

• Risk Management in Banking Sector
• Basics of Derivatives
• Global financial markets and International Banking-broad trends and latest developments
• Financial Inclusion
• Alternate source of finance, private and social cost-benefit, Public-Private Partnership
• Corporate Governance in Banking Sector, the role of e-governance in addressing issues of corruption and inefficiency in the government sector
• The Union Budget-Concepts, approach, and broad trends
• Inflation: Definition, trends, estimates, consequences, and remedies (control): WPI, CPI -components, and trends
• Striking a balance between inflation and growth through monetary and fiscal policies
• FinTech

RBI Grade B books are prescribed by the RBI. Candidates can refer to the books given below for the RBI Grade B exam. These best books for RBI Grade B will help candidates to go long way in clearing the exam:

Economic and Social Issue

Indian Economy

• Uma Kapila (series of books)
• Mishra & Puri (Latest Edition) 

Growth and Development: Devraj Ray

Sociology: C.N. Shankar Rao

Public Finance: K K Andley and Sundaram

• Candidates can refer to the newspapers 
• Magazines/Periodicals/ Bulletins including RBI Bulletins, EPW, etc.
• World Development Report
• Economic Survey of India
• RBI Annual Report
• Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India
• IMF: World Economic Outlook
• Material sourced from RBI website

Finance and Management

Finance
• Monetary Theory and Public Policy- Kenneth Kurihara
• Indian Economy-Mishra & Puri
• Economic Growth and Development-Mayer and Baldwin
• Financial Management – Prasanna Chandra
• Major financial newspapers
• International business by Hill and Jain
• RBI Annual Report, Report on Trend and Progress of Banking in India, etc.
• Economic Survey
• Material sourced from RBI website

English Language

• Objective English by Edgar Thorpe
• Objective General English by RS Aggarwal, Vikas Aggarwal
• Word Power Made Easy by Norman Lewis

Reasoning

• Test of Reasoning by Edgar Thorpe
• A modern approach to verbal & non-verbal Reasoning by RS Aggarwal
• How to prepare for Logical Reasoning by Arun Sharma
• Analytical Reasoning by MK Pandey

Management

• Stephen P Robbins & Mary Coulter, Management
• Robbins Stephen P and Judge T A Vohra, Organisational Behaviour
• Dessler Gary, Warkkey Biju- Human Resource Management
• Decenzo and Robbins-Fundamentals of Human Resource Management
• Velasquez Manuel G: Business Ethics-Concepts and Cases
• Fernando A C: Business Ethics-An Indian Perspective
• Crane Andrew & Matten Dirk: Business Ethics
• Ghosh B N: Business Ethics & Corporate Governance

RBI Grade B Interview Syllabus

RBI Grade B interview is the final phase of selection process. Candidates qualifying the Phase 1 and 2 exams are called for the interview. The performance of the candidates in the Interview will decide their final selection for RBI Grade B exam. There is no syllabus for interview, candidates are asked questions related to their education, RBI guidelines. job profile, etc.

RBI Grade B Preparation Tips

I think we have clear everything related to RBI Grade B Exam, Now if we talk about the preparation Tips then there are some important things while preparing for RBI Grade B Exam, which are:

• Have a Proper Study Plan/ Strategy and stick to it.
• Study according to syllabus
• Be consistent
• You should have a clear plan or focus regarding you weak/ strong points (Do SWOT Analysis of Yourself for it)
• Don’t miss to solve the PYQs(Previous Year Questions)
• Try to Give Mocks as much as you can to do self analysis.

RBI Grade B Books/ Resources

Note: These books are not any promotion, these books are based on student reviews and the content they have. If you have any other resources then these you can stick to this.

RBI Grade B Admit Card 2024

The Admit Card is not released yet, it will be released 10-15 days before the exam date. Here are the steps to download admit card for RBI Grade B Exam:

• Visit the official website of RBI
• Click the ‘RBI Grade B admit card’ download link on the home page
• Enter the login credentials-registration number or roll number and date of birth or password
• RBI Grade B admit card appears on the screen
• Download the admit card and take its printout

RBI Grade B Exam Analysis 2023

RBI Grade B Phase 1 Exam Analysis 2023

The Phase 1 exam difficulty level is Moderate to Difficult. The Maths section was tough and GA is Moderate and Reasoning and English is Easy level. So you can prepare accordingly to make your Maths section Strong and have a good command on other sections as well.

Overall Difficulty Level

RBI Grade B Phase 2 Exam Analysis 2023

The Phase 2 is overall Easy to Moderate Level, If Candidate have a Good Command on the all these subjects then he/she can easily crack the cut off for Phase 2. The overall difficulty level of the RBI Grade B Phase 2 exam is given below.

RBI Grade B Result 2024

RBI Grade B results released separately for Prelims and Mains, Here are the Cut off/ Result of RBI Grade B 2023:

RBI Grade B Phase 1 Cut off 2023

RBI Grade B Phase 2 Cut off 2023

Conclusion

In this blog we have discussed everything related to RBI Grade B Exam, If you read this blogs then you don’t have any doubt related to RBI Grade B Exam, We Have covered Exam Pattern, Syllabus, How to Prepare, Exam date, Exam Analysis, Notification, Cut off etc.

If you are want to work in RBI then this is the best opportunity to work in the India’s Central bank, prepare for it and Crack It!

Best Wishes from Eduexa!

Frequently Asked Question(FAQs)

Q. When RBI Grade B 2024 Notification will be Result?

Ans: RBI Grade B Exam 2024 Notification will be released in the first week of July.

Q. What is RBI Grade B Salary?

Ans: The basic pay is ₹ 55,200/-p.m, and the initial monthly gross emoluments stands at 1,16,914/- (approximately).

Q. Is RBI Grade B Exam is difficult to clear? 

Ans. The RBI grade B exam test the candidate’s knowledge regarding Finance, General Knowledge, Economy, Banking. If you have a good strategy and study plan regarding these then it’s not that tough to clear RBI Grade B Exam.

The post Everything you need to know about RBI Grade B Exam- Latest Updates appeared first on Eduexa.

Rajasthan PTET 2024: Notification, Exam, Syllabus, Cutoff, Result 20 Apr 2024, 12:35 pm

What is PTET?

PTET full form is Pre-Teacher Education Test. Every year, the PTET is held to provide admission to eligible applicants to B.Ed (Bachelor of Education) and BA/BSc (Bachelor of Science) B.Ed courses provided in universities in Rajasthan.

It is a test held in Rajasthan to determine the eligibility of applicants for B.ed exams. A candidate must be an Indian citizen in order to take the PTET. They must also have received at least 50% of their marks in their master’s or bachelor’s degree. The PTET exam is vital for people who aspire to be teachers.

The Government Dungar College, Bikaner, administers the PTET, a state-level entrance exam. The PTET is often administered offline.  There are four components to the exam question paper (General Knowledge, Mental Ability, Teaching Aptitude Test, and Language Proficiency). There are 50 questions in each section, each worth three points. Candidates must achieve at least 40% in PTET 2024 to be considered for this test.

PTET Eligibility Criteria

The PTET 2024 eligibility conditions are specified by the conducting authorities. As a result, candidates should review the eligibility requirements before applying for PTET 2024. Candidates can check their eligibility for the course they are applying for using the Rajasthan PTET 2024 eligibility table below.

Age Limit:

Candidates for the PTET 2024 exam must be older than 21 years of age in order to sit for the exam.

Educational Qualification:

The educational requirements vary depending on the programme. The following are the course-by-course qualifying criteria depending on the educational qualification required:

Eligibility for B.Ed. PTET 2024

Candidates must have obtained a minimum of 45 percent in the Bachelor/Postgraduate Examination of any university recognised by law that is deemed comparable to the graduate/postgraduate examination of the State University of Rajasthan, regardless of caste or category.

Eligibility for B.A. B.Ed./B.SC B.Ed. in PTET 2024

Candidates in the general category must have obtained at least 50% in a Bachelors/Masters Degree level examination from Rajasthan or (10 + 2) or similar examination as defined by State Government norms.

Rajasthan SC/ST/OBC, special backward classes, physically challenged, widowed or divorced women applicants must obtain a minimum of 45 percent aggregate score to be qualified for the exam.

Please note the following points

• Candidates who have completed their graduation through a correspondence course from any university with only one university examination or who have not studied under the 10+2+3 plan or 10+1+3 (old scheme) are ineligible to take the PTET Rajasthan. Furthermore, the conducting authority will not accept any provisional candidate who fails to produce the appropriate documentation. 
• Candidates from reserved categories, such as SC/ST/OBC/Differently Abled, would be permitted a 5% reduction in the qualifying marks in the minimum Educational Qualification for eligibility to apply.
• Only a diploma/degree course in teacher education accredited by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) will be accepted for the purposes of this Notification. Only a programme accredited by the Rehabilitation Council of India (RCI) would be considered for the Diploma in Education (Special Education) and B.ED. (Special Education).
• Training to be completed: After being appointed, a person with a D.Ed. (Special Education) or B.Ed. (Special Education) must complete an NCTE-approved 6-month Special Program in Elementary Education.
• Teachers of Languages, Social Studies/Social Science, Mathematics, Science, and other subjects must meet the minimal credentials listed above.
• The minimum qualification criteria for Physical Education instructors referred to the NCTE Regulation, dated 3rd November 2001 (as amended from time to time) must apply to Physical Education teachers.
• Existing eligibility requirements imposed by state governments and other school managements for instructors of Art Education, Craft Education, Home Science, Work Education, and other subjects will apply until the NCTE establishes minimum qualifications for such teachers.
• Candidates in their last year of a Bachelor’s Degree in Education or a Diploma in Elementary Education, for example, are temporarily admitted, and their PSTET Certificate will only be recognised if they pass the aforementioned Examinations.

PTET Category Reservation

Candidates from other states who are not Rajasthan citizens will only be considered for the General Category. Candidates from other states will fill no more than 5% of the total number of seats available faculty-wise, based on overall merit, regardless of the state to which the candidate belongs, as long as the merit of a candidate from outside 

Candidates who are genuinely residents of Rajasthan State will be considered for the remaining seats. According to state government laws, reservations for Rajasthan domicile would be made from the total number of seats available in each Faculty (Arts, Science, and Commerce).

PTET Exam Syllabus

Jai Narain Vyas University, Jodhpur will announce the PTET syllabus 2024 for 4-year BA BEd/BSc BEd and 2-year BEd programmes on the exam’s official website. Candidates seeking admission to 4-year BA BEd/BSc BEd and 2-year BEd programmes should take the PTET 2024 exam. The PTET test is a state-level exam that is administered once a year. Candidates who have applied for the PTET exam should familiarise themselves with the PTET syllabus in order to prepare for the exam. On July 3, the Rajasthan PTET exam for all BEd courses will be held.

The PTET examination will be comprised of a single question paper, which will be broken up into the following four sections:

• Section A: Mental Ability 

• Section B: Teaching Attitude and Aptitude Test

• Section C: General Knowledge

• Section D: Language Proficiency (Hindi and English)

Section A: Mental Ability 

This area of the syllabus covers an individual’s reasoning, judgement, and decision-making abilities, as well as logical, imaginative, and creative thinking, inference drawing, and generalisation ability.

• Inferences from drawings
• Reasoning
• Creative Thinking
• Generalisation
• Imagination
• Judgement & Decision Making
• Drawing inferences 

Section B: Teaching Attitude and Aptitude Test

This part basically evaluates a person’s social abilities like Social maturity, professionalism, efficient leadership, communication skills, interpersonal relationships, and awareness are all covered in this part. 

• Social Maturity
• Effective Leadership
• Professionalism
• Interpersonal Relations
• Communication skills
• Awareness etc. 

Section C: General Knowledge

This component of the exam covers all themes such as current events, Indian history, Rajasthan knowledge, Indian assets and resources, renowned Indian people, and environmental awareness.

• Current Events (National & International)
• History and Culture of India
• The Natural Resources of India
• Great Indian Characters (Past and Present)
• Environmental Concerns
• Rajasthani knowledge

Section D: Language Proficiency (Hindi and English)

This section of the exam assesses an individual’s fluency, vocabulary, grammar, comprehension, and sentence construction in Hindi or English, depending on the candidate’s preference.

• Functional Grammar 
• Vocabulary knowledge
• Structures of Sentences
• Comprehension

PTET Exam Pattern

Mental Ability, Teaching Attitude and Aptitude Test, General Awareness, and Language Proficiency are the four sections of the PTET question paper (Hindi or English). Candidates must answer multiple-choice questions (MCQs). The following are the points to be considered of the PTET 2024 exam pattern: 

In the table below, candidates can see how their scores for the PTET entrance exam 2024 were distributed. The marks allocated are distributed with respect to the number of questions in each section. Each subject has 50 questions each.

PTET Cut off for categories

Candidates from UR Category face high cut off marks in PTET Exam as compared to other categories students. For each category, the PTET anticipated cut off for 2024 is listed below:

PTET Admit card

The admit card for PTET 2024 will be available for download on the exam’s official website starting on the scheduled date. The PTET admission card is a vital document that must be brought to the exam centre. A colour printout of the PTET admit card is required for candidates. It is recommended that you download two copies, as one must be submitted at the exam centre. The PTET 2024 admission card will provide information such as the location of the test centre, exam slot, reporting time, and other relevant factors. Take a look at how to get your PTET 2024 admission card:

• Visit the exam’s official website at ptetraj2024.com.
• Select the ‘login’ tab.
• Fill in the application number and password for PTET 2024.
• Navigate to the ‘admit card’ area.
• Then, select the ‘download’ tab.

PTET Admission Process

• Step 1: Fill out the PTET application form

Candidates must first fill out the PTET application form 2024 on the exam’s official website. In addition, candidates must pay a PTET application cost of Rs 500 online.

• Step 2: Download the PTET admission card

Next, applicants can get their PTET 2024 admit card from the exam’s official website according to the schedule provided. The admit card for the PTET exam contains vital facts such as exam date, time, test centre address, etc.

• Step 3: Administer the PTET

The PTET examination must be taken on the date and time specified on the admission card. The PTET test consists of 200 multiple-choice questions for 600 points. The length of the examination is three hours.

• Step 4: Examine the PTET test result

Candidates can view their PTET 2024 results on the exam’s official website. Candidates can get their results by providing their name, mother’s name, roll number, and birth date.

• Step 5: Participate in PTET counselling

Lastly, all qualified applicants must attend the PTET counselling round. In PTET counselling, candidates are assigned seats in their respective courses based on their attained ranks and the number of seats available.

PTET Answer Key

The PTET Answer Key 2024 will be made available following the Board’s successful administration of the examination. The answer key assists candidates in determining the correct responses to all questions on the PTET examination. Key candidates will be able to evaluate their performance and estimate their examination score with the aid of the answers. In the event of a mismatch or error in the question paper or answer key, candidates will be able to bring a representative to the board’s attention.

PTET Result

The PTET results will be released once the 2024 PTET exams have concluded. The Results will be published on the Jai Narain Vyas Vishwavidyalaya, Jodhpur, website. Candidates can easily access their results through the portal using their application number and password. Visit this page frequently to obtain the most recent information regarding the PTET 2024 examination.

PTET Selection Process

Candidates will be required to take the PTET Exam in 2024, followed by a round of counselling. The candidates will be assigned to their respective colleges or universities according to their exam scores and overall performance in the counselling round. The selection procedure for the PTET in 2024 is as follows:

• Online Registration for the Rajasthan PTET Exam 2024
• Admission Card Issue
• PTET Exam
• Statement of Results
• Counselling Round
• Allocation of Institutions/Universities

PTET Preparation Tips:

Choosing the right books for preparation is of great assistance; however, locating the books that will aid in attaining the highest exam score is quite difficult. There are  books listed, from the thousands of books available on the market, the best books for studying for the Rajasthan PTET examination, which will increase your chances of passing. To pass the one-tier Rajasthan PTET examination, you must study each exam topic in depth and with great care. And thus, selecting the greatest books available can make preparations not only simpler but also more effective.

Other Important Sources Available for the Rajasthan PTET Examination are as follows:

• In order to improve their level of readiness for the examination, applicants may access online notes and preparation tips, as well as sample papers, previous year’s exams, and archived exams online.
• Every candidate must remain current on daily events. Online experts have compiled Daily Current Affairs to aid in your preparations.
• Observe and proper analysis of the previous year’s examinations, comprehend the weighting of points and exam format, and study accordingly.

PTET Counselling Process

Candidates who pass the Rajasthan PTET Exam 2024 will be invited to a Counseling Session. The session of Counseling will be conducted online. The dates for the Online Counselling session will be published in all of Rajasthan’s leading newspapers, and additional information will be available on the Rajasthan PTET’s official website. The primary purpose of the online counselling session is to assign candidates to colleges/institutes.

Candidates who do not attend the counselling session or who refuse to accept the college or institution that has been assigned to them will have their PTET merit position and the opportunity to enrol in the B.Ed programme removed from their records. The date and allocation of seats following the Rajasthan PTET Counseling 2024 will be announced at a later time.

The candidates will be assigned colleges/institutes based on their merit, faculty, teaching subjects, and the colleges/institutes they selected on their online counselling registration form. The candidates’ colleges/institutions will not be assigned based on their location, hometown, or any other factor not specified in the rules.

Steps to follow in the counseling process: 

Participants must register for the online counselling process. The candidates will find detailed registration instructions for the online counselling session in the section that follows. A Rajasthan PTET counseling fee of Rs. 5,000/- must be paid by the candidates. This registration will be deducted from the total tuition if the candidate successfully completes the counselling session and enrols at the designated college/institute.

• Candidates must complete the Counselling registration form by accessing the official website and selecting the course for which they are applying.
• For the challan to be issued, the registration fee must be deposited in the bank.
• To complete the registration form, applicants must provide their name, mother’s name, roll number, date of birth, and counselling id.
• Applicants are required to indicate their preferences for the colleges to which they seek admission.
• The registration form can be submitted once they’ve entered all the necessary information.

Documents required for Counselling process

We have provided the few most essential PTET Counseling documents that are required for admission.

• Passport photograph
• Voter identification or residence proof
• PTET Scoring Sheet
• Certificate of Education
• Character document
• Domicile certificate
• Income certificate

Frequently Asked Questions(FAQs):

1. Does the PTET include negative marking?

Ans: The PTET Exam will be worth a total of 600 marks. Examination will consist of 200 questions. All questions will be of the Multiple Choice (MCQ) variety. There is no negative marking for the examination.

2. How do I make payment for my PTET Exam?

Ans: The PTET form 2024 fee is Rs. 500/- and can be paid in one of the ways listed below. Online – PTET 2024 online application fees may be paid with Net banking, credit card, debit card, or e-Mitra. Offline – Candidates may also pay the application processing fee via Bank Challan, which is an alternative payment method.

3. Can students in their final year apply for PTET?

Ans: Candidates who are currently enrolled in the final year qualifying examinations of graduation such as the B.A, B.Com, B.Sc. Shastri or post-graduation such as the M.A, M.Sc.

4. How can I determine my PTET ranking?

Ans: At ptetraj2021.com, applicants can view their results online. However, the website is currently unavailable. In addition, the page contains a direct link for accessing the Rajasthan PTET result 2021. To access it, candidates must enter their roll number and date of birth when logging in.

5. How do I modify the PTET form?

Ans: The ability to edit a PTET application form is only available online. Candidates can make form corrections using their respective login credentials. The Form Number, Name of the candidate’s father, Name of the candidate’s mother, and Date of Birth are required for PTET application form correction.

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